Question1: Which process involves developing an approximation of the monetary resources needed to complete project activities?
Question2: What are the formal and informal policies, procedures, and guidelines that could impact how the project's scope is managed?
Question3: Which defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
Question4: Expected monetary value (EMV) is computed by which equation?
Question5: Which written document helps monitor who is responsible for resolving specific problems and concerns by a target date?
Question6: Which provides the basic framework for managing a project?
Question7: The lowest level normally depicted in a work breakdown structure (WBS) is called a/an:
Question8: Which type of risk diagram is useful for showing time ordering of events?
Question9: Which of the following correctly lists the configuration management activities included in the Integrated Change Control process?
Question10: Ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation is a focus of which of the following?
Question11: High-level project risks are included in which document?
Question12: Testing falls into which of the following categories of cost of quality?
Question13: Which Process Group typically consumes the bulk of a project's budget?
Question14: Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question15: Which item is an input to the Define Activities process?
Question16: Which Knowledge Area is concerned with the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
Question17: Which of the following are inputs to Activity Definition?
Question18: Which is an example of Administer Procurements?
Question19: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process provides guidance on how stakeholders can best be involved in a project?
Question20: Which risk management strategy seeks to eliminate the uncertainty associated with a particular upside risk by ensuring that the opportunity is realized?
Question21: A project manager at a publishing company decides to initiate the editing phase of the project as soon as each chapter is written. Which type of Sequence Activities tool and technique is involved, considering that there was a start-to-start relationship with a 15-day delay?
Question22: Which tool or technique is used in validating the scope of a project?
Question23: An input to Close Project or Phase is:
Question24: Which of the following investigates the likelihood that each specific risk will occur?
Question25: Which Project Management Process Group includes Collect Requirements, Define Activities, Sequence Activities, Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis, and Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Question26: The progressive detailing of the project management plan is called:
Question27: Documented identification of a flaw in a project component together with a recommendation is termed a:
Question28: How is the schedule variance calculated using the earned value technique?
Question29: Define Activities and Estimate Activity Resources are processes in which project management Knowledge Area?
Question30: A project manager needs to deliver the project 2 weeks before the planned date without changing the scope. Which of the following techniques may be applied to reevaluate the schedule?
Question31: When large or complex projects are separated into distinct phases or subprojects, all of the Process Groups would normally be:
Question32: In the Define Activities process, the schedule management plan is used to:
Question33: Which of the following is an input to Develop Human Resource Plan?
Question34: What is an objective of the Develop Project Team process?
Question35: Which Project Time Management process includes bottom-up estimating as a tool or technique?
Question36: In a weak matrix, the project managers role is:
Question37: Which of the following documents allows the project manager to assess risks that may require near term action?
Question38: Plan Schedule Management is a process in which Knowledge Area?
Question39: An output of the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is:
Question40: The project manager needs to review the templates in use. The templates are part of the:
Question41: Projects are undertaken by an organization to support the:
Question42: A primary function of a project management office is to support project managers in a variety of ways, including which of the following?
Question43: Which item is an example of personnel assessment?
Question44: Which of the following is contained within the communications management plan?
Question45: Which knowledge area employs the processes required to ensure timely and appropriate generation, collection, distribution, storage, retrieval, and ultimate disposition of project information?
Question46: Which Knowledge Areas include processes from the Closing Process Group?
Question47: Project deliverables that have been completed and checked for correctness through the Control Quality process are known as:
Question48: Which is a tool or technique used in Define Scope?
Question49: Changes to formally controlled documentation, plans, etc. to reflect modified or additional ideas or content are known as:
Question50: A change log for communications can be used to communicate to the appropriate stakeholders that there are changes:
Question51: What type of project structure is a hierarchically organized depiction of the resources by type?
Question52: The process to ensure that appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used is:
Question53: Which type of elaboration allows a project management team to manage at a greater level of detail as the project evolves?
Question54: A graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships is known as a:
Question55: The individual or group that provides resources and support for a project and is accountable for success is the:
Question56: Perform Integrated Change Control is the process of:
Question57: What risk technique is used to quantify the probability and impact of risks on project objectives?
Question58: Which tools or techniques are used in the Plan Schedule Management process?
Question59: Analogous cost estimating relies on which of the following techniques?
Question60: Which process develops options and actions to enhance opportunities and reduce threats to project objectives?
Question61: Which is an input to the Scope Verification Process?
Question62: The item that provides more detailed descriptions of the components in the work breakdown structure (WB5) is called a WBS:
Question63: Which Process Group and Knowledge Area include the Sequence Activities process?
Question64: One of the objectives of a quality audit is to:
Question65: Which of the following is an information gathering technique in Identify Risks?
Question66: In the basic communication model, which term refers to the method that is used to convey the message?
Question67: The project has a current cost performance index of 0.80. Assuming this performance wi continue, the new estimate at completion is $1000. What was the original budget at completion for the project?
Question68: Which of the following tools and techniques is used to estimate cost?
Question69: At which stage of team development do members begin to work together, adjust work habits, and trust each other?
Question70: The run chart created during the Perform Quality Control process on a project is used to show the:
Question71: Which type of analysis is used to determine the cause and degree of difference between the baseline and actual performance?
Question72: What are the five Project Management Process Groups?
Question73: Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
Question74: Which of the following processes are part of the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
Question75: An associate who calculates fees daily to support the department is doing which of the following?
Question76: The iterative and interactive nature of the Process Groups creates the need for the processes in which Knowledge Area?
Question77: When an activity cannot be estimated with a reasonable degree of confidence, the work within the activity is decomposed into more detail using which type of estimating?
Question78: Enterprise environmental factors are an input to which process?
Question79: Approved change requests, approved corrective actions, and updates to organizational process assets are all outputs of which project management process?
Question80: Within project integration management, the statement of work (SOW) references which aspects of the project?
Question81: Which Process Group contains the processes performed to complete the work defined in the project management plan to satisfy the project specifications?
Question82: An input to the Collect Requirements process is the:
Question83: Which type of dependency is contractually required or inherent in the nature of the work?
Question84: Prioritizing risks for further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact takes place in which process?
Question85: The project charter is an input to which process?
Question86: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost variance (CV) for Task 6?
Question87: Tools and techniques used in Direct and Manage Project Work include:
Question88: Payback period, return on investment, internal rate of return, discounted cash flow, and net present value are all examples of:
Question89: What quality control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
Question90: When painting a bedroom, preparing the walls can be done while the paint is being chosen. This is an example of a:
Question91: Analytical techniques are a tool and technique of which process in Project Procurement Management?
Question92: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?
Question93: Which Perform Quality Assurance tool or technique is used to identify a problem, discover the underlying causes that lead to it, and develop preventative actions?
Question94: The process of prioritizing risks for further analysis or action is known as:
Question95: The processes required to establish the scope of the project, refine the objectives, and define the course of action required to attain the objectives that the project has been undertaken to achieve are grouped within which Process Group?
Question96: Which is the document that presents a hierarchical project organization?
Question97: The basis of identification for current or potential problems to support later claims or new procurements is provided by:
Question98: Which Process Group includes the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question99: A measure of cost performance that is required to be achieved with the remaining resources in order to meet a specified management goal and is expressed as the ratio of the cost needed for finishing the outstanding work to the remaining budget is known as the:
Question100: In which of the following types of organizations is resource availability moderate to high?
Question101: Managing procurement relationships and monitoring contract performance are part of which process?
Question102: The specific technique for identifying a problem, discovering the causes that lead to it, and developing preventive actions is:
Question103: What is the number of stakeholders, if the project has 28 potential communication channels?
Question104: The component of the human resource management plan that includes ways in which team members can obtain certifications that support their ability to benefit the project is known as:
Question105: A temporary endeavor that creates a unique product or service is called a:
Question106: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
Question107: What type of planning is used where the work to be accomplished in the near term is planned in detail, while work in the future is planned at a higher level?
Question108: Which of the following change requests can bring expected future performance of the project work in line with the project management plan?
Question109: The methodology that combines scope, schedule, and resource measurements to assess project performance and progress is known as:
Question110: The definition of operations is a/an:
Question111: How is quality control performed?
Question112: What component of the project scope definition defines project exclusions?
Question113: An input of the Plan Procurement Management process is:
Question114: Which Control Stakeholder Engagement tool or technique allows the project manager to consolidate and facilitate distribution of reports?
Question115: Which document in the project management plan can be updated in the Plan Procurement Management process?
Question116: The iterative process of increasing the level of detail in a project management plan as greater amounts of information become available is known as:
Question117: Which of the following Process Groups covers all Project Management Knowledge Areas?
Question118: At which point of the project is the uncertainty the highest and the risk of failing the greatest?
Question119: The process of identifying and documenting relationships among the project activities is known as:
Question120: The Define Scope process is in which of the following Process Groups?
Question121: PMBOI Guide is a standard that describes:
Question122: Which tool or technique is used in the Estimate Costs process?
Question123: Which process involves the creation of a document that provides the project manager with the authority to apply resources to a project?
Question124: In which process is a project manager identified and given the authority to apply resources to project activities?
Question125: Which tool within the Perform Quality Control process identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
Question126: Which quality planning tools and techniques are used to visually identify logical groupings based on natural relationships?
Question127: Ensuring that both parties meet contractual obligations and that their own legal rights are protected is a function of:
Question128: The three processes of Project Cost Management are:
Question129: Which type of contract is most commonly used by buying organizations because the price for goods is set at the outset and is not subject to change unless the scope of work changes?
Question130: Which input may influence quality assurance work and should be monitored within the context of a system for configuration management?
Question131: What does a CPI value greater than 1.0 indicate?
Question132: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is called risk:
Question133: Which of the following is a means of reaching a group decision in which everyone agrees on a single course of action?
Question134: An output of the Manage Project Team process is:
Question135: Project contracts generally fall into which of the following three broad categories?
Question136: Which tool and technique identifies inefficient and ineffective policies, processes, and procedures?
Question137: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Question138: Which of the following schedule network analysis techniques is applied when a critical path method calculation has been completed and resources availability is critical?
Question139: Which type of diagram includes groups of information and shows relationships between factors, causes, and objectives?
Question140: Conditions that are not under the control of the project team that influence, direct, or constrain a project are called:
Question141: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question142: What is the responsibility of the project manager and the functional manager respectively?
Question143: Which of the following is an input to the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
Question144: A project manager should communicate to stakeholders about resolved project issues by updating the:
Question145: At the completion of a project, a report is prepared that details the outcome of the research conducted on a global trend during the project. Which item did this project create?
Question146: Which process group contains the processes performed to finalize all activities?
Question147: Which Define Activities tool or technique is used for dividing and subdividing the project scope and project deliverables into smaller, more manageable parts?
Question148: In project management, a temporary project can be:
Question149: Which of the following are outputs of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
Question150: A project can be defined as a:
Question151: If the most likely duration of an activity is five weeks, the best-case duration is two weeks, and the worst- case duration is 14 weeks, how many weeks is the expected duration of the activity?
Question152: Which of the following consists of the detailed project scope statement and its associated WBS and WBS dictionary?
Question153: What is project management?
Question154: Which of the following methods is a project selection technique?
Question155: As part of a mid-project evaluation, the project sponsor has asked for a forecast of the total project cost.
What should be used to calculate the forecast?
Question156: Which tool or technique measures performance of the project as it moves from project initiation through project closure?
Question157: Which of the following is a set of interrelated actions and activities performed to achieve a prespecified product, result, or service?
Question158: Stakeholder satisfaction should be managed as a key project:
Question159: Fast tracking is a schedule compression technique used to shorten the project schedule without changing project scope. Which of the following can result from fast tracking?
Question160: Issue change requests and adapt approved changes into the project's scope, plans, and environment is an activity included in which of the following project management processes?
Question161: In a construction project schedule, what is the logical relationship between the delivery of the concrete materials and the pouring of concrete?
Question162: An output of Control Schedule is:
Question163: Identify Stakeholders is the process of identifying all of the people or organizations impacted by the project and documenting relevant information regarding their interests in, involvement in, and impact on the project:
Question164: Which standard has interrelationships to other project management disciplines such as program management and portfolio management?
Question165: In which phase of team building activities do team members begin to work together and adjust their work habits and behavior to support the team?
Question166: Which standard examines an enterprise's project management process capabilities?
Question167: Which tool and technique is used in Conduct Procurements?
Question168: For a project to be successful, the project team must do which of the following?
Question169: What scope definition technique is used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question170: Organizations perceive risks as:
Question171: What is an objective of the Developing Project Team Process?
Question172: Which items are components of a project management plan?
Question173: Using the following data, what is the Schedule Performance Index (SPI)?
EV= $500 PV= $750 AC= $1000 BAC= $1200
Question174: An input to the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
Question175: Which tool or technique can a project manager use to select in advance a team member who will be crucial to the task?
Question176: Which Define Activities output extends the description of the activity by identifying the multiple components associated with each activity?
Question177: Which is a tool used in monitoring and controlling project work?
Question178: A project charter is an output of which Process Group?
Question179: Which degree of authority does a project manager have on a project in a strong matrix organizational structure?
Question180: Which type of analysis would be used for the Plan Quality process?
Question181: Which stakeholder approves a project's result?
Question182: Which of the following response strategies are appropriate for negative risks or threats?
Question183: Analyzing the strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) of a project is known as:
Question184: Which of the following is an output of Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question185: Sending letters, memos, reports, emails, and faxes to share information is an example of which type of communication?
Question186: The most commonly used type of precedence relationship in the precedence diagramming method (PDM) is:
Question187: Using the three-point estimating technique, if the most likely duration is four months, the optimistic duration is two months, and the pessimistic duration is one year, how many months is the expected activity duration?
Question188: The cost baseline and project funding requirements are outputs of which process in Project Cost Management?
Question189: Which of the following is an input to the Direct and Manage Project Execution process?
Question190: An input to the Plan Stakeholder Management process is:
Question191: The process of developing a detailed description of the project and product is known as:
Question192: Which schedule network analysis technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
Question193: The zero duration of milestones in project planning occurs because milestones:
Question194: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity H is how many days?
Question195: Which is an output from Distribute Information?
Question196: What is one of the objectives of Project Risk Management?
Question197: Requirements documentation will typically contain at least:
Question198: Which type of agreement is legal, contractual, and between two or more entities to form a partnership, joint venture, or some other arrangement as defined by the parties?
Question199: What is the critical chain method?
Question200: What are the key components of the communication model?
Question201: The ability to influence cost is greatest during which stages of the project?
Question202: Scope verification is PRIMARILY concerned with which of the following?
Question203: Which of the following is an input to the Develop Project Charter process?
Question204: The Administer Procurements process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
Question205: Which tool or technique of Plan Quality involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
Question206: An output of the Close Project (or Close Phase) process is:
Question207: Which of the following outputs from the Control Schedule process aids in the communication of schedule variance (SV), schedule performance index (SPI), or any performance status to stakeholders?
Question208: Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
Question209: Stakeholders can be identified in later stages of the project because the Identify Stakeholders process should be:
Question210: Which of the following is an output of Close Procurements?
Question211: The project manager for XYZ stationers is sequencing the activities for the project to set up a new office. It is known from knowledge of best practices that it is better to wait for the painters to finish painting the walls before the new floors are installed. This is an example of which of the following types of dependency?
Question212: During which process group is the quality policy determined?
Question213: When closing a project or phase, part of the process may require the use of which type of analysis?
Question214: Stakeholder communication requirements should be included as a component of:
Question215: The project manager has requested all expert team members to complete an anonymous questionnaire to identify possible risks. This is an example of a technique known as the:
Question216: Most experienced project managers know that:
Question217: When should quality planning be performed?
Question218: Which item is a formal proposal to modify any document, deliverable, or baseline?
Question219: Funding limit reconciliation is a tool and technique of which Project Cost Management process?
Question220: Which of the following is an input to Direct and Manage Project Execution?
Question221: What is the tool and technique used to request seller responses?
Question222: Which of the following methods of performance review examines project performance over time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Question223: A reward can only be effective if it is:
Question224: Which index is the calculated projection of cost performance that must be achieved on the remaining work to meet a specified management goal?
Question225: Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Durations?
Question226: Which process involves identifying and documenting the logical relationships between project activities?
Question227: Which is an enterprise environmental factor?
Question228: The process of confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities is known as:
Question229: Risk responses reflect an organization's perceived balance between:
Question230: Your project has an EV of 100 work-days, an AC of 120 work-days, and a PV of 80 work days. What should be your concern?
Question231: Schedule milestones and a predefined budget are examples of:
Question232: In which type of contract are the performance targets established at the onset and the final contract price determined after completion of all work based on the sellers performance?
Question233: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
Question234: The purpose of inspection in Perform Quality Control is to keep errors:
Question235: Project management processes are:
Question236: Which Activity Duration Estimating technique incorporates additional timing for contingency purposes?
Question237: Which of the Project Time Management processes analyzes activity sequencing, durations, resource requirements, and schedule constraints?
Question238: In the Initiating Process Group, at what point does the project become officially authorized?
Question239: Which of the following is an example of a technique used in quantitative risk analysis?
Question240: The definition of when and how often the risk management processes will be performed throughout the project life cycle is included in which risk management plan component?
Question241: Which item is an output of Plan Quality Management and an input to Perform Quality Assurance?
Question242: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the cost performance index (CPI) for Task 2?
Question243: Which Collect Requirements output links the product requirements to the deliverables that satisfy them?
Question244: The Process Group in which the internal and external stakeholders interact and influence the overall outcome of the project is the:
Question245: Which of the following processes audits the quality requirements and the results from quality control measures to ensure appropriate quality standards and operational definitions are used?
Question246: Which of the following are placed at selected points in the work breakdown structure (WBS) for performance measurement?
Question247: What causes replanning of the project scope?
Question248: Skills necessary for project management such as motivating to provide encouragement; listening actively; persuading a team to perform an action; and summarizing, recapping, and identifying next steps are known as:
Question249: Which of the following is a group decision-making technique?
Question250: In which process might you use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
Question251: Work performance information and cost forecasts are outputs of which Project Cost Management process?
Question252: Which type of analysis is used to examine project results through time to determine if performance is improving or deteriorating?
Question253: The staffing management plan is part of the:
Question254: Which of the following is an output of the Plan Quality process?
Question255: Which of the following forecasting methods uses historical data as the basis for estimating future outcomes?
Question256: Organizational process assets, a lessons-learned database, and historical information are all inputs to which process?
Question257: Who is responsible for initiating a project?
Question258: A project has an EV of 100 workdays, an AC of 120 workdays, and a PV of 80 workdays. What should be the concern?
Question259: Which input to the Plan Risk Management process provides information on high-level risks?
Question260: The project scope statement and resource calendars are inputs to which Project Time Management process?
Question261: When calculating the cost of quality (COQ) for a product or service, money spent for cost of conformance would include the areas of:
Question262: A project management office manages a number of aspects including the:
Question263: In the Develop Project Team process, which of the following is identified as a critical factor for a project's success?
Question264: The creation of an internet site to engage stakeholders on a project is an example of which type of communication?
Question265: Plan Risk Management is the process of defining how to:
Question266: A project manager requesting industry groups and consultants to recommend project intervention is relying on:
Question267: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in all processes within Project Integration Management?
Question268: Which of the following procurement processes results in the awarding of a procurement contract?
Question269: Projects are authorized by which of the following individuals?
Question270: A Pareto chart is a specific type of:
Question271: Which type of organizational structure is displayed in the diagram provided?
Question272: The probability and impact matrix is primarily used to:
Question273: Completion of the product scope is measured against the product:
Question274: What's budget?
Question275: What is the function of a Project Management Office (PMO)?
Question276: A method of obtaining early feedback on requirements by providing a working model of the expected product before actually building is known as:
Question277: Which term describes an assessment of correctness?
Question278: In the Plan Procurement Management process, which source selection criteria analyzes if the seller's proposed technical methodologies, techniques, solutions, and services meet the procurement documents requirements?
Question279: Scope, schedule, and cost parameters are integrated in the:
Question280: Who is responsible for reviewing change requests and approving or rejecting the change requests?
Question281: What are assigned risk ratings based upon?
Question282: The most appropriate project life cycle model for an environment with a high level of change and extensive stakeholder involvement in projects is:
Question283: Which of the following is an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question284: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
Question285: An input to Develop Project Charter is a/an:
Question286: The project manager notes that stakeholders are aware of the project and potential impacts and are actively engaged in ensuring that the project is a success. The engagement level of the stakeholders should be classified as:
Question287: The project management processes are usually presented as discrete processes with defined interfaces, while in practice they:
Question288: Risk exists the moment that a project is:
Question289: Which tool or technique of the Define Activities process allows for work to exist at various levels of detail depending on where it is in the project life cycle?
Question290: Project Scope Management is primarily concerned with:
Question291: Which Process Group's purpose is to track, review, and regulate the progress and performance of the project; identify any areas in which changes to the plan are required; and initiate the corresponding changes?
Question292: Which tools or techniques will the project manager use for developing the project team?
Question293: What is the definition of project plan execution?
Question294: Which of the following is a tool or technique of the Define Activities process?
Question295: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The free float for Activity E is how many days?
Question296: The purpose of developing a project scope management plan is to:
Question297: Budgets reserved for unplanned changes to project scope and cost are:
Question298: Which of the following is a conflict resolution technique that emphasizes areas of agreement rather than areas of difference?
Question299: Which quality management and control tool is useful in visualizing parent-to-child relationships in any decomposition hierarchy that uses a systematic set of rules that define a nesting relationship?
Question300: What name(s) is (are) associated with the Plan-Do-Check-Act cycle?
Question301: Which process is responsible for monitoring the status of the project and product scope and managing changes to the scope baseline?
Question302: During which process does the project team receive bids and proposals?
Question303: An output of the Develop Project Team process is:
Question304: In which process might a project manager use risk reassessment as a tool and technique?
Question305: Which of the following is an output from Control Scope?
Question306: Which type of contract is a hybrid of both a cost-reimbursable and a fixed-price contract?
Question307: Which document describes the necessary information to determine if a project is worth the required investment?
Question308: Verification of project deliverables occurs during which process?
Question309: A project manager managing a cross-cultural virtual project team across several time zones should be concerned about the impacts of which communication technology factor?
Question310: What is a tool and technique used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
Question311: The diagram below is an example of a:
Question312: Whose approval may be required for change requests after change control board (CCB) approval?
Question313: Which statement is true about the project management body of knowledge?
Question314: The process of obtaining seller responses, selecting a seller, and awarding a contract is called:
Question315: Who determines which dependencies are mandatory during the Sequence Activities process?
Question316: Which of the following processes are within the Initiating Process Group?
Question317: A project team attempts to produce a deliverable and finds that they have neither the expertise nor the time to complete the deliverable in a timely manner. This issue could have been avoided if they had created and followed a:
Question318: To which process is work performance information an input?
Question319: Which of the following is a tool and technique for Estimate Activity Durations?
Question320: Which of the following statements correctly characterizes pull communication?
Question321: Which of the following is an input to the Qualitative Risk Analysis process?
Question322: Which of the following reduces the probability of potential consequences of project risk events?
Question323: Which organizational process assets update is performed during the Close Procurements process?
Question324: The product scope description is used to:
Question325: An issue log is an input to which Project Human Resource Management process?
Question326: Organizational theory is a tool used in which Project Human Resource Management process?
Question327: A full-time project manager with low to moderate authority and part-time administrative staff is working in an organizational structure with which type of matrix?
Question328: When does the project team determine which dependencies are discretionary?
Question329: Which of the following statements is true regarding project and product lifecycles?
Question330: Organizational process assets can be divided into which of the following two categories?
Question331: In a typical project, project managers spend most of their time:
Question332: What is the minimum a project schedule must include?
Question333: What is a deliverable-oriented, hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
Question334: Inputs to Identifying Stakeholders include:
Question335: Which of the following statements best describes the influence of stakeholders and the cost of changes as project time advances?
Question336: Which basic quality tool is most useful when gathering attributes data in an inspection to identify defects?
Question337: Which of the following correctly explains the term "progressive elaboration'?
Question338: A tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process is:
Question339: The initial development of a Project Scope Management plan uses which technique?
Question340: Which Knowledge Area involves identifying the people, groups, or organizations that may be impacted by or impact a project?
Question341: Which type of analysis is used to develop the communications management plan?
Question342: Which type of dependency is legally or contractually required or inherent in the nature of work and often involves physical limitations?
Question343: Which of the following tools or techniques is used for Estimate Activity Duration?
Question344: Who is responsible for developing the project management plan and all related component plans?
Question345: Which of the following is an example of push communication?
Question346: The review of a sellers progress toward achieving the goals of scope and quality within cost and schedule compared to the contract is known as:
Question347: The CPI is .92, and the EV is US$172,500. What is the actual cost of the project?
Question348: An output of the Create WBS process is:
Question349: Information collected on the status of project activities being performed to accomplish the project work is known as what?
Question350: An element of the project scope statement is:
Question351: A projects purpose or justification, measurable project objectives and related success criteria, a summary milestone schedule, and a summary budget are all components of which document?
Question352: What are the Project Procurement Management processes?
Question353: Configuration identification, configuration status accounting, and configuration verification and audit are all activities in which process?
Question354: Grouping the stakeholders based on their level of authority and their level of concern regarding project outcomes describes which classification model for stakeholder analysis?
Question355: One of the tools and techniques of the Manage Project Team process is:
Question356: Which technique is used in Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis?
Question357: Which of the following is an output of the Monitor and Control Project Work process?
Question358: Which tool or technique is required in order to determine the project budget?
Question359: The Perform Integrated Change Control process occurs in which Process Group?
Question360: Which of the following is an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Develop Project Charter process?
Question361: Which is used to solicit proposals from prospective sellers?
Question362: Which changes occur in risk and uncertainty as well as the cost of changes as the life cycle of a typical project progresses?
Question363: Which type of analysis is used as a general management technique within the Plan Procurements process?
Question364: Impacts to other organizational areas, levels of service, and acceptance criteria are typical components of which document?
Question365: Which of the following is an example of contract administration?
Question366: Which of the following is an input to Control Scope?
Question367: Which of the seven basic quality tools is especially useful for gathering attributes data while performing inspections to identify defects?
Question368: The planned work contained in the lowest level of work breakdown structure (WBS) components is known as:
Question369: Which action should a project manager take to ensure that the project management plan is effective and current?
Question370: What tool and technique is used to determine whether work and deliverables meet requirements and product acceptance criteria?
Question371: Which tool or technique is used in Close Procurements?
Question372: A risk may be graded into different priorities by which process?
Question373: Which of the following is a tool and technique for activity duration estimating?
Question374: An input to the Identify Stakeholders process is:
Question375: Perform Quality Control is accomplished by:
Question376: In which Process Group are lessons learned documented?
Question377: The project manager at an organization has just realized that some of the engineering staff has been allocated to project Y and will not be available to finish task X The project manager has also discovered that at the current pace, it will not be possible to complete the project on time. Due to cost constraints, hiring more work force is not a viable option. Which tools are at the manager's disposal?
Question378: You are assigned to implement the project control plan. What should you do to ensure the plan is effective and current?
Question379: Which process in Project Time Management includes reserve analysis as a tool or technique?
Question380: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
Question381: How should a stakeholder who is classified as high power and low interest be grouped in a power/interest grid during stakeholder analysis?
Question382: Risk categorization is a tool or technique used in which process?
Question383: Which of the following types of a dependency determination is used to define the sequence of activities?
Question384: One of the key benefits of the Plan Human Resource Management process is that it:
Question385: In a project, total float measures the:
Question386: What is a hierarchically organized depiction of the identified project risks arranged by risk category?
Question387: When is a Salience Model used?
Question388: The Identify Stakeholders process is found in which Process Group?
Question389: Which process should be conducted from the project inception through completion?
Question390: Soft logic is also known as what type of dependency?
Question391: The Monitoring and Controlling Process Group includes processes that:
Question392: In which domain of project management would a Pareto chart provide useful information?
Question393: Lessons learned documentation is gathered during which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
Question394: A tool or technique in Perform Quality Control that a project manager would use is:
Question395: The project budget is set at $150,000. The project duration is planned to be one year. At the completion of Week 16 of the project, the following information is collected:
Actual cost = $50,000, Plan cost = $45,000, Earned value = $40,000. What is the cost performance index?
Question396: The three types of estimates that PERT uses to define an approximate range for an activity's cost are:
Question397: Which characteristic is unique to project work and does not apply to operational work?
Question398: Within a matrix organization, dual reporting of team members is a risk for project success. Who is responsible for managing this dual reporting relationship factor?
Question399: In which process group is the scope first defined?
Question400: After Define Activities and Sequence Activities, the next process is:
Question401: Which of the following techniques is used during Control Scope?
Question402: A project manager is appointed full-time to a project and is given full-time administrative staff and full-time project team members. This situation describes which type of organizational structure?
Question403: What is the primary benefit of meeting quality requirements?
Question404: Using values such as scope, cost, budget, and duration or measures of scale such as size, weight, and complexity from a previous similar project as the basis for estimating the same parameter or measurement for a current project describes which type of estimating?
Question405: Which of the following are outputs of Develop Project Team?
Question406: Forecasts, requested changes, recommended corrective actions, and organizational process asset updates are all outputs of which process?
Question407: The Create WBS process is in which of the following Project Management Process Groups?
Question408: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedulevariance (SV) for Task 8?
Question409: An input required in Define Scope is an organizational:
Question410: Units of measure, level of precision, level of accuracy, control thresholds, and rules of performance measurement are examples of items that are established in the:
Question411: The following is a network diagram for a project.
How many possible paths are identified for this project?
Question412: Who provides the inputs for the original estimates of activity durations for tasks on the project plan?
Question413: An input to the Plan Procurement Management process is:
Question414: Tools and techniques used for Plan Communications include the communication:
Question415: Which of the following is a tool or technique for the Plan Procurements process?
Question416: An input to the Control Quality process is:
Question417: A tool or technique used during the Administer Procurements process is:
Question418: The process for performing variance analysis may vary, depending on:
Question419: Which project risk listed in the table below is most likely to occur?
Question420: The process of identifying the stakeholders' information needs is completed during:
Question421: The traditional organization chart structure that can be used to show positions and relationships in a graphic top-down format is called a:
Question422: Under which type of contract does the seller receive reimbursement for all allowable costs for performing contract work, as well as a fixed-fee payment calculated as a percentage of the initial estimated project costs?
Question423: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
Question424: Stakeholder management strategy is an output of:
Question425: During project selection, which factor is most important?
Question426: Which schedule method allows the project team to place buffers on the project schedule path to account for limited resources and project uncertainties?
Question427: Which of the following helps to ensure that each requirement adds business value by linking it to the business and project objectives?
Question428: What process determines which risks might affect the project?
Question429: A contract management plan is a subsidiary of what other type of plan?
Question430: Which of the following will provide the basis for estimating, scheduling, executing, and monitoring and controlling project work?
Question431: A purchase order for a specified item to be delivered by a specified date for a specified price is the simplest form of what type of contract?
Question432: Which type of estimating is used to improve the accuracy of an activity's duration?
Question433: Cost baseline is an output of which of the following processes?
Question434: Which group creativity technique asks a selected group of experts to answer questionnaires and provide feedback regarding the responses from each round of requirements gathering?
Question435: Which process is included in the Project Integration Management Knowledge Area?
Question436: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
Question437: In Plan Risk Management, which of the management plans determines who will be available to share information on various risks and responses at different times and locations?
Question438: How is scheduled variance calculated using the earned value technique?
Question439: The process improvement plan details the steps for analyzing processes to identify activities which enhance their:
Question440: The product scope description is used to:
Question441: The links between the processes in the Process Groups are often:
Question442: The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
Question443: Which activity is an input to the Conduct Procurements process?
Question444: In Project Cost Management, which input is exclusive to the Determine Budget process?
Question445: An example of a group decision-ma king technique is:
Question446: Which schedule development technique modifies the project schedule to account for limited resources?
Question447: Which tool or technique is an examination of industry and specific vendor capabilities?
Question448: Which characteristics do effective project managers possess?
Question449: When does Monitor and Control Risks occur?
Question450: At which stage of the project should certain factors such as the unavailability of human resources due to constraint be considered?
Question451: While preparing the project management plan on a weekly basis, the project manager indicates the intention to provide an issues report to the staff via e-mail. In which part of the plan will this type of information be included?
Question452: The number of potential communication channels for a project with 5 stakeholders is:
Question453: Project or phase closure guidelines or requirements, historical information, and the lessons learned knowledge base are examples of which input to the Close Project or Phase process?
Question454: Which process involves documenting the actions necessary to define, prepare, integrate, and coordinate all subsidiary plans?
Question455: Which process determines the risks that might affect the project?
Question456: The risk shared between the buyer and seller is determined by the:
Question457: Which Develop Schedule tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
Question458: Which baselines make up the performance measurement baseline?
Question459: Which of the following is used to illustrate the connections between work packages or activities and project team members?
Question460: What is a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the work to be executed to accomplish the project objectives and create the required deliverables?
Question461: When is a project finished?
Question462: Which tool or technique is used in Manage Stakeholder Expectations?
Question463: An intentional activity to modify a nonconforming product or product component is called:
Question464: A project manager builds consensus and overcomes obstacles by employing which communication technique?
Question465: Which of the following strategies is used to deal with risks that may have a negative impact on project objectives?
Question466: Which of the following is a complete set of indexed contract documentation, including the closed contract?
Question467: An input of the Control Schedule process is the:
Question468: Which of the following is the primary output of the Identify Risks process?
Question469: A strengths, weaknesses, opportunities, and threats (SWOT) analysis is a tool or technique used in which process?
Question470: Which type of analysis systemically gathers and analyzes qualitative and quantitative information to determine which interests should be taken into account throughout the project?
Question471: Which of the following is TRUE about most project life cycles?
Question472: Which of the following is an example of schedule compression?
Question473: When a project is undertaken to reduce defects in a product or service, the objective of the project is to create a/an:
Question474: Change requests are an output from which Project Integration Management process?
Question475: Which of the following project documents is an input to the Control Scope process?
Question476: An output of the Create WBS process is:
Question477: What is Project Portfolio Management?
Question478: Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
Question479: Projects are separated into phases or subprojects; these phases include:
Question480: The project management processes presented in the PMBOK Guide® should:
Question481: Which basic quality tool explains a change in the dependent variable in relationship to a change observed in the corresponding independent variable?
Question482: A project manager has created an issue log to document issues communicated by project team members during weekly team meetings. This is an input of:
Question483: What is a tool to improve team performance?
Question484: The integrative nature of project management requires which Process Group to interact with the other Process Groups?
Question485: What defines the portion of work included in a contract for items being purchased or acquired?
Question486: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during Estimate Costs?
Question487: As the project progresses, which of the following is routinely collected from the project activities?
Question488: An effective technique for resolving conflict that incorporates multiple viewpoints from differing perspectives to achieve consensus and commitment is:
Question489: The person assigned by the performing organization to be responsible for achieving the project objectives is the:
Question490: Where are product requirements and characteristics documented?
Question491: The process of identifying and documenting project roles, responsibilities, required skills, and reporting relationships and creating a staffing management plan is known
as:
Question492: Identify Risks is part of which Process Group?
Question493: A disadvantage associated with virtual teams is that they:
Question494: Team performance assessments is an output of which of the following processes?
Question495: Which of the following is a component of three-point estimates?
Question496: Prototype development may be used as a tool for which of the following risk response strategies?
Question497: An output of the Plan Quality Management process is:
Question498: The process of establishing the policies, procedures, and documentation for planning, developing, managing, executing, and controlling the project schedule is known as:
Question499: Retreating from an actual or potential conflict or postponing the issue to be better prepared or to be resolved by others describes which of the five general techniques for managing conflict?
Question500: Which of the following risk response strategies involves allocating ownership of a positive risk to a third party?
Question501: When can pre-assignment of project team members occur?
Question502: Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Verify Scope process?
Question503: An input required to develop a preliminary project scope statement is:
Question504: The Closing Process Group includes which of the following Knowledge Areas?
Question505: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
Question506: What is a technique used in the performance reporting process?
Question507: Procurement audits, negotiated settlements, and a records management system are tools and techniques used in which Procurement Management process?
Question508: During which process would you obtain stakeholders' formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
Question509: Which tool or technique is used in the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question510: Which of the following tools and techniques are utilized in the Close Project or Phase process?
Question511: Which of the following is an input of the Define Activities process?
Question512: In the Plan Stakeholder Management process, expert judgment is used to:
Question513: Which tool or technique allows a large number of ideas to be classified into groups for review and analysis?
Question514: The Plan Procurements process includes documenting project purchasing decisions and what other steps?
Question515: The risk response strategy in which the project team acts to reduce the probability of occurrence or impact of a risk is known as:
Question516: Which of the following are an enterprise environmental factor that can influence the Identify Risks process?
Question517: Which process is usually a rapid and cost-effective means of establishing priorities for Plan Risk Responses?
Question518: Success is measured by benefits realization for a:
Question519: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) if the planned value (PV) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$150, and the earned value (EV) is $50?
Question520: Which tools or techniques will a project manager use for Develop Project Team?
Question521: Power, urgency, and legitimacy are attributes of which stakeholder classification model?
Question522: Which of the following is an output of the Distribute Information process?
Question523: 
Which of the following is the correct network diagram for the table?
Question524: Which of the following is a tool and technique used to monitor risk?
Question525: Create WBS is part of which of the following Knowledge Areas?
Question526: Which cost is associated with nonconformance?
Question527: Conflict should be best addressed in which manner?
Question528: A project manager who communicates to the project team though email is using which type of communication?
Question529: Which is an output of the Collect Requirements process?
Question530: Status of deliverables, implementation status for change requests, and forecasted estimates to complete are examples of:
Question531: Which stakeholder classification model groups stakeholders based on their level of authority and their active involvement in the project?
Question532: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Acquire Project Team process?
Question533: Which quality tool may prove useful in understanding and estimating the cost of quality in a process?
Question534: Design of experiments (DOE) should be used during which of the following processes?
Question535: An input to Conduct Procurements is:
Question536: Cost aggregation is typically performed by aggregating work packages in accordance with the:
Question537: Which activity is an input to the select sellers process?
Question538: The correct equation for schedule variance (SV) is earned value:
Question539: What is the estimate at completion (EAC) if the budget at completion (BAC) is $100, the actual cost (AC) is
$50, and the earned value (EV) is $25?
Question540: Which of the following is a project constraint?
Question541: Monte Carlo is which type of risk analysis technique?
Question542: Decomposition, rolling wave planning, and templates are all tools and techniques for which of the following?
Question543: Which change request is an intentional activity that realigns the performance of the project work with the project management plan?
Question544: Which type of contract gives both the seller and the buyer flexibility to deviate from performance with financial incentives?
Question545: The technique of subdividing project deliverables into smaller, more manageable components until the work and deliverables are defined to the work package level is called:
Question546: When sequencing activities, what does the common acronym FF stand for?
Question547: The chart below is an example of a:
Question548: Which enterprise environmental factors may influence Plan Schedule Management?
Question549: Which is a communication method used in the Report Performance process?
Question550: The cost performance baseline is typically displayed in the form of:
Question551: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
Question552: The approaches, tools, and data sources that will be used to perform risk management on a project are determined by the:
Question553: Which type of graphic is displayed below?
Question554: Which process documents the business needs of a project and the new product, service, or other result that is intended to satisfy those requirements?
Question555: Which quality control technique illustrates the 80/20 principle?
Question556: What do composite organizations involve?
Question557: Which input to the Manage Stakeholder Engagement process is used to document changes that occur during the project?
Question558: Which Perform Quality Control tool graphically represents how various elements of a system interrelate?
Question559: Which of the following is an estimating technique that uses the values of parameters from previous similar projects for estimating the same parameter or measure for a current project?
Question560: A required input for Create WBS is a project:
Question561: Which of the following is an output of the Define Activities process?
Question562: Which of the following correctly describes when organizations and stakeholders are willing to accept varying degrees of risk?
Question563: Which input to Collect Requirements is used to identify stakeholders who can provide information on requirements?
Question564: Which Control Quality tool is also known as an arrow diagram?
Question565: Technical capability, past performance, and intellectual property rights are examples of:
Question566: Which of the following are three inputs to the risk register?
Question567: One of the fundamental tenets of modern quality management states that quality is:
Question568: A Project Management Office (PMO) manages a number of aspects, including what?
Question569: Using parametric estimating, if an assigned resource is capable of producing 120 units per hour, how many hours are required to produce 12,000 units?
Question570: A given schedule activity is most likely to last four weeks. In a best-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last two weeks. In a worst-case scenario, the schedule activity is estimated to last 12 weeks.
Given these three estimates, what is the expected duration of the activity?
Question571: An input to the Estimate Activity Resources process is:
Question572: Which component of the human resource management plan describes when and how project team members are acquired and how long they will be needed?
Question573: To please the customer, a project team member delivers a requirement which is uncontrolled. This is not part of the plan. This describes:
Question574: When does risk monitoring and control occur?
Question575: The milestone list is an input to which process from the Planning Process Group?
Question576: Which item is a cost of conformance?
Question577: Change requests, project management plan updates, project document updates, and organizational process assets updates are all outputs of which project management process?
Question578: Which tool is used to develop technical details within the project management plan?
Question579: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The shortest non-critical path for the project is how many days in duration?
Question580: Which process numerically analyzes the effect of identified risks on overall project objectives?
Question581: The Project Human Resource Management process that involves confirming human resource availability and obtaining the team necessary to complete project activities
is:
Question582: Which type of dependency is established based on knowledge of best practices within a particular application area or some unusual aspect of the project in which a specific sequence is desired, even though there may be other acceptable sequences?
Question583: What is the name of the statistical method that helps identify which factors may influence specific variables of a product or process under development or in production?
Question584: Which is a tool or technique used in scope definition?
Question585: The business needs, assumptions, and constraints and the understanding of the customers needs and high-level requirements are documented in the:
Question586: A tool and technique used during the Create WBS process is:
Question587: Which can be used to determine whether a process is stable or has predictable performance?
Question588: Which is the Define Scope technique used to generate different approaches to execute and perform the work of the project?
Question589: Which stakeholder communicates with higher levels of management to gather organizational support and promote project benefits?
Question590: Project managers who lead by example and follow through on the commitments they make demonstrate the key interpersonal skill of:
Question591: Which of the following is an output of the Information Distribution Process?
Question592: Organizational planning impacts projects by means of project prioritization based on risk, funding, and an organizations:
Question593: Which of the following are inputs to the Plan Procurements process?
Question594: Which process identifies whether the needs of a project can best be met by acquiring products, services, or results outside of the organization?
Question595: Which schedule development tool and technique produces a theoretical early start date and late start date?
Question596: Processes in the Initiating Process Group may be completed at the organizational level and be outside of the project's:
Question597: As part of a mid-project evaluation, your project sponsor has asked you to provide a forecast of total project cost. You should calculate the forecast using which of the following methods?
Question598: Which type of probability distribution is used to represent uncertain events such as the outcome of a test or a possible scenario in a decision tree?
Question599: Exhibit A is an example of which of the following types of Sequence Activities?
Question600: A tool and technique used during the Collect Requirements process is:
Question601: Co-location is a tool and technique of:
Question602: Definitions of probability and impact, revised stakeholder tolerances, and tracking are components of which subsidiary plan?
Question603: What is the name of a graphic display of project team members and their reporting relationships?
Question604: Inputs to the Plan Risk Management process include the:
Question605: Which of the following choices is a contract closure tool or technique?
Question606: The risk management team of a software project has decided that due to the lack of adequate talent in the company, development of a specific part of the system is under high risk, so the team has decided to outsource it. This is an example of which risk response?
Question607: A special type of bar chart used in sensitivity analysis for comparing the relative importance of the variables is called a:
Question608: When addressing roles and responsibilities,which item ensures that the staff has the skills required to complete project activities?
Question609: Which of the following is a tool or technique used in the Determine Budget process?
Question610: The process of identifying specific actions to be performed to produce project deliverables is:
Question611: Which of the following are inputs into the Administer Procurements process?
Question612: Which quality tool incorporates the upper and lower specification limits allowed within an agreement?
Question613: Which of the following Project Communication Management processes uses performance reports as an input?
Question614: Activity resource requirements and the resource breakdown structure (RBS) are outputs of which Project Time Management process?
Question615: Plan Communications Management develops an approach and plan for project communications based on stakeholders' needs and requirements and:
Question616: Which action is included in the Control Costs process?
Question617: Which of the Perform Quality Assurance tools and techniques may enhance the creation of the work breakdown structure (WBS) to give structure to the decomposition of the scope?
Question618: What are the components of the "triple constraint"?
Question619: An input to the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process is the:
Question620: Which of the following are documented directions to perform an activity that can reduce the probability of negative consequences associated with project risks?
Question621: Activity resource requirements and resource breakdown structure are outputs from what Project Time Management process?
Question622: An input to the Manage Project Team process is:
Question623: Project management processes ensure the:
Question624: Quality metrics are an output of which process?
Question625: A project manager providing information to the right audience, in the right format, at the right time is an example of which type of communication?
Question626: Who, along with the project manager, is supposed to direct the performance of the planned project activities and manage the various technical and organizational interfaces that exist within the project?
Question627: An output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process is:
Question628: Which output of Project Cost Management consists of quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to complete project work?
Question629: The degree of uncertainty an entity is willing to take on in anticipation of a reward is known as its risk:
Question630: The ways in which the roles and responsibilities, reporting relationships, and staffing management will be addressed and structured within a project is described in the:
Question631: The Human Resource Management processes are:
Question632: Which of the following is a narrative description of products, services, or results to be delivered by a project?
Question633: Which of the following is a statistical concept that calculates the average outcome when the future includes scenarios that may or may not happen?
Question634: Which input to the Identify Stakeholders process provides information about internal or external parties related to the project?
Question635: Which of the following is an output of the Conduct Procurements process?
Question636: Which type of managers do composite organizations involve?
Question637: A project manager seeking insight on previous stakeholder management plans and their effectiveness should evaluate:
Question638: Which earned value management (EVM) metric is a measure of the cost efficiency of budgeted resources expressed as a ratio of earned value (EV) to actual cost (AC) and is considered a critical EVM metric?
Question639: A project requires a component with well-understood specifications. Performance targets are established at the outset, and the final contract price is determined after completion of all work based on the seller's performance. The most appropriate agreement with the supplier is:
Question640: The completion of the project scope is measured against the:
Question641: Which tool or technique is used in the Plan Scope Management process?
Question642: Which of the following is a schedule network analysis technique that takes limited resources into account?
Question643: Which of the following is a strategy to deal with positive risks or opportunities?
Question644: Which technique is utilized in the Control Schedule process?
Question645: An imposed date for completion of the project by the customer is an example of a project:
Question646: The process of monitoring the status of the project and product scope as well as managing the changes to the scope baseline is known as:
Question647: Which of the following are the components of the scope baseline?
Question648: Sharing good practices introduced or implemented in similar projects in the organization and/or industry is an example of:
Question649: An input of the Create WBS process is:
Question650: Which technique should a project manager use in a situation in which a collaborative approach to conflict management is not possible?
Question651: The Plan Stakeholder Management process belongs to which Process Group?
Question652: Projects can intersect with an organization's operations at various points during the product life cycle such as:
Question653: The project governance approach should be described in the:
Question654: A process is defined as:
Question655: Outputs of the Control Communications process include:
Question656: The cost of nonconformance in a project includes:
Question657: The key benefit of the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group is the ability to:
Question658: Which tool or technique used in the Control Procurements process can be conducted during the execution of the project to verify compliance with deliverables?
Question659: Which tool and technique of quality planning involves comparing actual or planned practices to those of other projects to generate ideas for improvement and provide a basis by which to measure performance?
Question660: The following is a network diagram for a project.
What is the critical path for the project?
Question661: What is the probability of occurrence if the risk rating is 0.56 and the impact if the risk does occur is very high (0.80)?
Question662: The process of defining how the project scope will be validated and controlled is known as:
Question663: The scope of a project cannot be defined without some basic understanding of how to create the specified:
Question664: An output of the Validate Scope process is:
Question665: Managing ongoing production of goods and services to ensure business continues efficiently describes which type of management?
Question666: Which of the following factors is lowest at the start of the project?
Question667: Which of the following makes changes to formally control documentation to reflect modified or additional ideas or content?
Question668: When the business objectives of an organization change, project goals need to be:
Question669: Which of the following is an input into the Develop Project Team process?
Question670: An element of the modern quality management approach used to achieve compatibility with the International Organization for Standardization (ISO) is known
as:
Question671: Which cost estimate technique includes contingencies to account for cost uncertainty?
Question672: Which of the following involves making information available to project stakeholders in a timely manner?
Question673: Quality and credibility of the qualitative risk analysis process requires that different levels of the risk's probabilities and impacts be defined is the definition of what?
Question674: When alternative dispute resolution (ADR) is necessary, which tool or technique should be utilized?
Question675: The stakeholder register is an output of:
Question676: Which of the following outputs from the Schedule Control process aids in the communication of SV, SPI or any performance status to stakeholders?
Question677: Which technique is utilized in the Schedule Control process?
Question678: When a permitting agency takes longer than planned to issue a permit, this can be described as a risk:
Question679: Which output is the approved version of the time-phased project budget?
Question680: Which tool or technique is used to develop a project charter?
Question681: Which tool or technique is used in the Develop Project Management Plan process?
Question682: Which piece of information is part of the WBS Dictionary?
Question683: Sensitivity analysis is typically displayed as a/an:
Question684: The formal and informal interaction with others in an organization industry, or professional environment is known as:
Question685: In an organization with a projectized organizational structure, who controls the project budget?
Question686: When are deliverables accepted or not accepted?
Question687: Which process involves defining, preparing, and coordinating all subsidiary plans and integrating them into a comprehensive plan?
Question688: Which of the following terms indicates a deliverable-oriented hierarchical decomposition of the project work?
Question689: The output that defines an approach to increase the support and minimize negative impacts of stakeholders is the:
Question690: On what is project baseline development established?
Question691: The process of identifying and documenting the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables is known as:
Question692: Which type of control tool identifies whether or not a process has a predictable performance?
Question693: Which technique is commonly used for the Perform Quantitative Risk Analysis process?
Question694: Which of the following is the process of identifying the specific actions to be performed to produce the project deliverables?
Question695: Project Management Process Groups are linked by:
Question696: What type of reward can hurt team cohesiveness?
Question697: Taking out insurance in relation to risk management is called what?
Question698: A tool and technique used during the Define Scope process is:
Question699: Organizations manage portfolios based on which of the following types of plans?
Question700: Which of the following is an output of Define Scope?
Question701: Which Control Scope input is compared to actual results to determine if corrective action is required for the project?
Question702: Which group is formally chartered and responsible for reviewing, evaluating, approving, delaying, or rejecting changes to the project and for recording and communicating decisions?
Question703: While processes in the Planning Process Group seek to collect feedback and define project documents to guide project work, organizational procedures dictate when the project planning:
Question704: Which of the following lists contain processes that are included within Project Procurement Management?
Question705: A car company authorized a project to build more fuel-efficient cars in response to gasoline shortages.
With which of the following strategic considerations was this project mainly concerned?
Question706: A weighting system is a tool for which area of procurement?
Question707: Which category of contracts are sellers legally obligated to complete, with possible financial damages if the project objectives are not met?
Question708: A regression line is used to estimate:
Question709: What is the most accurate rough order of magnitude (ROM)?
Question710: An electronics firm authorizes a new project to develop a faster, cheaper, and smaller laptop after improvements in the industry and electronics technology. With which of the following strategic considerations is this project mainly concerned?
Question711: Which tool or technique is used to develop the human resource management plan?
Question712: The PV is $1000, EV is $2000, and AC is $1500. What is CPI?
Question713: Resource calendars are included in the:
Question714: Inputs to the Plan Schedule Management process include:
Question715: Which is one of the major outputs of Sequence Activities?
Question716: Cost of quality (COQ) refers to total cost of/to:
Question717: Which type of project management office (PMO) supplies templates, best practices, and training to project teams?
Question718: Which technique helps to determine the risks that have the most potential impact on a project?
Question719: A complete set of concepts, terms, and activities that make up an area of specialization is known as:
Question720: When a control chart is used to monitor performance of a process, which of the following will be set by the project manager and the appropriate stakeholders to reflect the point(s) at which corrective action will be taken to prevent exceeding the specification limits?
Question721: An input to the Plan Cost Management process is:
Question722: An example of a group decision-making technique is:
Question723: Which conflict resolution technique searches for solutions that bring some degree of satisfaction to all parties in order to temporarily or partially resolve the conflict?
Question724: Reserve analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question725: The cost benefit analysis tool is used for creating:
Question726: When cost variance is negative and schedule variance is positive, the project is:
Question727: For a stakeholder with low interest and high power, the project manager should:
Question728: Which document includes the project scope, major deliverables, assumptions, and constraints?
Question729: Which type of chart is a graphic representation of a process showing the relationships among process steps?
Question730: Which is an input to the Verify Scope process?
Question731: Through whom do project managers accomplish work?
Question732: The precedence diagramming method (PDM) is also known as:
Question733: Activity cost estimates are quantitative assessments of the probable costs required to:
Question734: Which of the following buffers protects the target finish date from slippage along the critical chain?
Question735: Which of the following is an example of the simplest fixed-price contract?
Question736: What characteristic do project and operational work share in common?
Question737: Which of the following strategic considerations often results in project authorization?
Question738: Types of internal failure costs include:
Question739: Which of the following are examples of interactive communication?
Question740: Which Process Group contains those processes performed to define a new project?
Question741: Which project document is updated in the Control Stakeholder Engagement process?
Question742: The Project Management Process Group in which performance is observed and measured regularly from project initiation through completion is:
Question743: Variance and trend analysis is a tool and technique used in which process?
Question744: A stakeholder expresses a need not known to the project manager. The project manager most likely missed a step in which stakeholder management process?
Question745: The process of aggregating the estimated costs of individual activities or work packages to establish an authorized cost baseline is:
Question746: An output of the Direct and Manage Project Work process is:
Question747: During which process does a project manager review all prior information to ensure that all project work is completed and that the project has met its objectives?
Question748: A method to manage stakeholder expectations in the scope statement is to clearly:
Question749: What is the lowest level in the Work Breakdown Structure called?
Question750: What cost control technique is used to compare actual project performance to planned or expected performance?
Question751: External organizations that have a special relationship with the enterprise and provide specialized expertise are called:
Question752: When a backward pass is calculated from a schedule constraint that is later than the early finish date that has been calculated during a forward pass calculation, this causes which type of total float?
Question753: Which of the following characteristics are found in a functional organizational structure?
Question754: Identifying major deliverables, deciding if adequate cost estimates can be developed, and identifying tangible components of each deliverable are all part of which of the following?
Question755: Which enterprise environmental factors are considered during cost estimating?
Question756: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
Question757: Which process involves aggregating the estimated costs of the individual schedule activities or work packages?
Question758: Which of the following is a schematic display of the project's schedule activities and the logical relationships among them?
Question759: A project lifecycle is defined as:
Question760: A project has a current cost performance index (CPI) of 1.25. To date, US$10,000 have been spent on performing the project work. What is the earned value of the work completed to date?
Question761: The component of the risk management plan that documents how risk activities will be recorded is called:
Question762: Which tools or techniques are used during the Close Project or Phase process?
Question763: Which type of manager is assigned by the performing organization to lead the team that is responsible for achieving the project objectives?
Question764: Who is responsible for determining which processes from the Process Groups will be employed and who will be performing them?
Question765: Those who enter into a contractual agreement to provide services necessary for a project are:
Question766: The process of formalizing acceptance of the completed project deliverables is known as:
Question767: When would resource leveling be applied to a schedule model?
Question768: Which of the following includes how requirements activities will be planned, tracked, and reported?
Question769: Which input will be used when tasked with developing the human resource plan?
Question770: The only Process Group that comprises processes that typically occur from the beginning to the end of the project life cycle is:
Question771: An input to the Identify Risks process is the:
Question772: A risk response strategy in which the project team shifts the impact of a threat, together with ownership of the response, to a third party is called:
Question773: The following is a network diagram for a project.
The total float for the project is how many days?
Question774: Updates to organizational process assets such as procurement files, deliverable acceptances, and lessons learned documentation are typical outputs of which process?
Question775: The organization's perceived balance between risk taking and risk avoidance is reflected in the risk:
Question776: Change requests are processed for review and disposition according to which process?
Question777: Which process occurs within the Monitoring and Controlling Process Group?
Question778: Which process involves monitoring the status of the project to update the project costs and managing changes to the cost baseline?
Question779: A work package has been scheduled to cost $1,000 to complete and was to be finished today. As of today, the actual expenditure is $1,200 and approximately half of the work has been completed. What is the cost variance?
Question780: The Perform Quality Assurance process occurs in which Process Group?
Question781: What is one of the MAJOR outputs of activity sequencing?
Question782: Which type of tool would be used for the quality planning activity?
Question783: A tool and technique used in the Develop Project Charter process is:
Question784: Which activity may occur at project or phase closure?
Question785: The following chart contains information about the tasks in a project.
Based on the chart, what is the schedule performance index (5PI) for Task 4?
Question786: A risk that arises as a direct result of implementing a risk response is called a:
Question787: A large portion of a projects budget is typically expended on the processes in which Process Group?
Question788: Projects that share common outcomes, collective capability, knowledge, or skills are often grouped into a:
Question789: A tool and technique used during the Perform Qualitative Risk Analysis process is:
Question790: The total of the planned value (PV) is also known as:
Question791: Which Manage Communications tool or technique focuses on identifying and managing barriers?
Question792: The organizational process assets that are of particular importance to Plan Communications are:
Question793: The procurement process that documents agreements and related documentation for future reference is known as:
Question794: Based on the following metrics: EV= $20,000, AC= $22,000, and PV= $28,000, what is the project CV?
Question795: The Process Group that involves coordinating people and resources, as well as integrating and performing the activities of the project in accordance with the project management plan is known as:
Question796: Which of the following processes is necessary to ensure that the project employs all processes needed to meet its requirements?
Question797: Which process involves subdividing project deliverables and project work into smaller, more manageable portions?
Question798: Which is the correct formula for calculating expected activity cost for three-point estimating?
Question799: Which grid shows which resources are tied to work packages?
Question800: What entity is assigned various responsibilities related to the centralized and coordinated management of those projects under its domain?
Question801: Market conditions and published commercial information are examples of which input to the Estimate Costs process?
Question802: In the Estimate Activity Durations process, productivity metrics and published commercial information inputs are part of the:
Question803: Which tool or technique is effective in a project in which the deliverable is not a service or result?
Question804: Another name for an Ishikawa diagram is:
Question805: Project Stakeholder Management focuses on:
Question806: Which type of team can be defined as a group of people with a shared goal who fulfill their roles although spending little or no time meeting face to face?
Question807: Administer Procurements is part of which Process Group?
Question808: An input to the Create WBS process is a:
Question809: What is the schedule performance index (SPI) using the following data? BAC = $100,000 PV = $50,000 AC = $80,000 EV = $40,000
Question810: Labor, materials, equipment, and supplies are examples of:
Question811: A project team member agrees to change a project deliverable after a conversation with an external stakeholder. It is later discovered that the change has had an adverse effect on another deliverable. This could have been avoided if the project team had implemented:
Question812: What are the identified risks for doing excessive decomposition in a WBS?
Question813: Which of the following processes includes prioritizing risks for subsequent further analysis or action by assessing and combining their probability of occurrence and impact?
Question814: A collection of projects managed as a group to achieve strategic objectives is referred to as a:
Question815: The Cost Management processes and their associated tools and techniques are usually selected during which of the following?
Question816: The application of knowledge, skills, tools, and techniques to project activities to meet project requirements describes management of which of the following?
Question817: The end point of a project phase can be referred to as:
Question818: Which illustrates the connection between work that needs to be done and its project team members?
Question819: Which schedule compression technique has phases or activities done in parallel that would normally have been done sequentially?
Question820: Cost variance (CV) is equal to earned value:
Question821: Portfolio Management is management of:
Question822: Which process uses occurrence probability and impact on project objectives to assess the priority of identified risks?
Question823: Who MUST know when a risk event occurs so that a response can be implemented?
Question824: Which document describes the procurement item in sufficient detail to allow prospective sellers to determine if they are capable of providing the products, services, or results?
Question825: Which input provides suppliers with a clear set of goals, requirements, and outcomes?
Question826: Which type of estimating can produce higher levels of accuracy, depending upon the sophistication and underlying data built into the model?
Question827: To which process is work performance information an input?
Question828: Which of the following is a tool and technique used in the Develop Schedule process?
Question829: Correlated and contextualized information on how closely the scope is being maintained relative to the scope baseline is contained within:
Question830: Which element does a project charter contain?
Question831: The degree, amount, or volume of risk that an organization or individual will withstand is known as its risk:
Question832: How many Project Management Process Groups are there?
Question833: For any given project, the project manager, in collaboration with the project team, is responsible for:
Question834: The contract in which the seller is reimbursed for all allowable costs for performing the contract work and then receives a fee based upon achieving certain performance objectives is called a:
Question835: A key benefit of the Manage Communications process is that it enables:
Question836: Which statement correctly describes the value of a business case?
Question837: What happens to a stakeholder's project influence over time?
Question838: Activity cost estimates and the project schedule are inputs to which Project Cost Management process?
Question839: In which Project Management Process Group is the project charter developed?
Question840: A project in which the scope, time, and cost of delivery are determined as early as possible is following a life cycle that is:
Question841: At the start of a typical project life cycle, costs are:
Question842: Overlooking negative stakeholders can result in a/an:
Question843: During what process is the quality policy determined?
Question844: Which process requires implementation of approved changes?
Question845: 
Which of the following tools and techniques is used in the Develop Project Team process?
Question846: Which tool or technique is used to manage change requests and the resulting decisions?
Question847: Outputs from constituent processes might be used as:
Question848: Which process involves determining, documenting, and managing stakeholders' needs and requirements to meet project objectives?
Question849: Which type of dependency used in the Sequence Activities process is sometimes referred to as preferred logic, preferential logic, or soft logic?
Question850: In which type of organizational structure are staff members grouped by specialty?
Question851: The group technique that enhances brainstorming with a voting process used to rank the most useful ideas for prioritization is called the:
Question852: At the end of the project, what will be the value of SV?
Question853: What is the total float of the critical path?
Question854: A project manager should document the escalation path for unresolved project risks in the:
Question855: Which activity involves ensuring that the composition of a projects configuration items is correct?
Question856: Which of the following is an input to the Plan Risk Responses process?
Question857: An input used in developing the communications management plan is:
Question858: Which of the following tools will be used to produce performance reports that provide information to stakeholders about project cost, schedule progress, and performance?
Question859: Assigned risk ratings are based upon:
Question860: Which of following could be organizational process assets?
Question861: In complex projects/ initiating processes should be completed:
Question862: Which of the following is an example of a risk symptom?
Question863: Which Plan Schedule Management tool or technique may involve choosing strategic options to estimate and schedule the project?
Question864: A technique used to determine the cause and degree of difference between baseline and actual performance is:
Question865: The primary benefit of the Plan Schedule Management process is that it:
Question866: The process of monitoring the status of the project to update project progress and manage changes to the schedule baseline is:
Question867: The purpose of the Project Communications Management Knowledge Area is to:
Question868: The scope management plan and scope baseline are contained in:
Question869: Every project creates a unique product, service, or result that may be:
Question870: Lessons learned are created and project resources are released in which Process Group?
Question871: The scope management plan is a subsidiary of which project document?
Question872: Processes in the Planning Process Group are typically carried out during which part of the project life cycle?
Question873: Plan-do-check-act is also known as:
Question874: Specification of both the deliverables and the processes is the focus of:
Question875: Which of the following events would result in a baseline update?
Question876: In which Knowledge Area is the project charter developed?
Question877: Which characteristic do projects and operational work share in common?
Question878: Typical outcomes of a project include:
Question879: Which of the following is developed from the project scope baseline and defines only that portion of the project scope that is to be included within a related contract?
Question880: Which process is conducted from project inception through completion and is ultimately the responsibility of the project manager?
Question881: The process of estimating the type and quantity of material, human resources, equipment, or supplies required to perform each activity is known as:
Question882: Who selects the appropriate processes for a project?
Question883: A logical relationship in which a successor activity cannot start until a predecessor activity has finished is known as:
Question884: While implementing an approved change, a critical defect was introduced. Removing the defect will delay the product delivery. What is the MOST appropriate approach to managing this situation?
Question885: Activities on the critical path have which type of float?
Question886: Job satisfaction, challenging work, and sufficient financial compensation are values related to which interpersonal skill?
Question887: What is the term assigned to products or services having the same functional use but different technical characteristics?
Question888: Which items are an output of the Perform Integrated Change Control process?
Question889: A benefit of using virtual teams in the Acquire Project Team process is the reduction of the:
Question890: "Tailoring" is defined as the:
Question891: During which process would stakeholders provide formal acceptance of the completed project scope?
Question892: Which estimating technique uses the actual costs of previous similar projects as a basis for estimating the costs of the current project?
Question893: Which type of management focuses on ensuring that projects and programs are reviewed to prioritize resource allocation?
Question894: Projects can be divided into phases to provide better management control. Collectively, what are these phases known as?
Question895: Change request status updates are an output of which process?
Question896: Progressively elaborating high-level information into detailed plans is performed by the:
Question897: A weighting system is a tool for which area of Conduct Procurements?
Question898: Inputs to the Define Activities process include:
Question899: What is the risk rating if the probability of occurrence is 0.30 and the impact if it does occur is moderate (0.20)?
Question900: Control charts, flowcharting, histograms, Pareto charts, and scatter diagrams are tools and techniques of which process?